I don't get it.
The original manuscript still exists, doesn't it? And there are many translations, right?
Kinda like the Illiad and the Odyssey? Or the Bible, no?
I wrote a few papers on how the translation changes meaning in college, but I found more that it changed the "slant" than the actual meaning. But, I just wrote those because they were easy to do and I knew I could get good grades on them
I didn't read it, so maybe that's why I'm not following your arguement. If so, just tell me I'm too ignorant. Then I'll get my Norton's Anthology out and read enough to understand
